Did Spitzer commit violation of Mann Act?

From Jeralyn at Talkleft:

Update: I sincerely doubt Spitzer will be charged with a crime. He probably will have to cooperate with the feds in the prosecution of the members of the prostitution ring. Did Spitzer commit a violation of the Mann Act, 18 USC 2422?

Whoever knowingly persuades, induces, entices, or coerces any individual to travel in interstate or foreign commerce, or in any Territory or Possession of the United States, to engage in prostitution, or in any sexual activity for which any person can be charged with a criminal offense, or attempts to do so, shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than 20 years, or both.

Smell like politically motivated. We should learn the lessons of the Don Siegelman case. Bush works for the corporations, and Spitzer went after everyone from Enron to Goldman Sachs. And you’re telling me they had to use federal resources to catch a guy for a possible misdemeanor solicitation of a prostitute??? And it all just happens to get leaked to the media, even the taped conversation??? Lots of questions to why Spitzer is targeted.

More question will be asked:

1. Will Spitzer need to be a witness in the case against the four individuals charged with conspiracy, prostitution, and money laundering? Will he be given immunity? In the federal system this would be "use" immunity as opposed to "transactional immunity," which means that anything he said or derived from what he said could not be used against him.

2. Was it really necessary to include all of these acts in the charging instrument? Prosecutors, obviously, knew who they were dealing with in this case. But, on the other hand, did fairness require this to happen - should any one person be protected here more than others?